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NEW QUESTION # 92
Which of the following illustrates an example of a compliant, prospective query?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A compliant prospective query is initiated before the next encounter so the provider can clarify documentation during the upcoming visit, using clinically relevant indicators without directing a specific diagnosis. Option A does this appropriately: it references an existing CHF history and a supportive medication (Lasix), then asks the provider to confirm whether CHF is pertinent at the next visit and, if so, to specify type and acuity. This supports accurate outpatient reporting because heart failure coding requires specificity (systolic/diastolic/combined; acute/chronic/acute on chronic) and should reflect what is actually evaluated/managed at the encounter. Option B is retrospective and attempts to justify a prior test. Option C is leading because it asks the provider to "add" a diagnosis to a past note rather than clarify current clinical status. Option D is also retrospective and uses "please add CHF," which is leading and can be perceived as prompting. Therefore, A best demonstrates a compliant prospective query.
NEW QUESTION # 93
An ACO with 50,000 beneficiaries just completed its first year of a 3-year contract where the final scores were quality 90%; expected costs were $50 million, and actual costs were $52 million. The shared savings rate determined by CMS was 50%. Which of the following is MOST accurate and applies for the ACO?
Answer: B
Explanation:
In MSSP-style ACO financial reconciliation, performance is evaluated against a benchmark (expected costs). Here, the ACO's actual spending ($52M) exceeds the expected benchmark ($50M) by $2M, meaning the ACO generated shared losses rather than savings. In risk-bearing ACO arrangements, when costs exceed the benchmark and the ACO is in a track that includes downside risk, the organization may owe CMS a portion of those losses. The shared savings/loss rate (50% in this scenario) represents the percentage of the difference from the benchmark that the ACO shares with CMS, assuming applicable thresholds are met. Thus, instead of receiving a shared savings payment, the ACO would be accountable to pay back a share of the excess spending (conceptually 50% of the $2M overage, if all model requirements are satisfied). Option D is not correct because reconciliation is typically performed on a performance-year basis rather than only at the end of the full agreement period, and option C is not how MSSP eligibility works.
NEW QUESTION # 94
A patient with a PMH of DM, GERD, and HTN is seen in the clinic with complaints of stuffy nose, fever, and feeling tired for the past four days. The patient's medication list includes SSI, Prilosec, and Diovan. The provider documented: "Congestion, fever, malaise, DM, GERD, HTN. Continue OTC medications for congestion and fever. Rest. Return to the clinic in one week if symptoms persist." Which of the following ICD-10-CM guidelines BEST applies to how this scenario should be coded?
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the outpatient setting, when the provider does not document a definitive diagnosis for the acute complaint (e.g., influenza, sinusitis, URI), ICD-10-CM guidance directs coders to report the signs and symptoms that are documented and addressed. Here, the clinician documents congestion, fever, and malaise and provides treatment instructions for those symptoms (OTC meds, rest, follow-up). That makes the symptom codes the most appropriate representation of the reason for the encounter. Outpatient CDI principles further emphasize that chronic conditions like DM, GERD, and HTN should only be coded when the documentation shows they were evaluated, monitored, assessed/managed, or treated during the visit (e.g., status, control, medication adjustment, related testing, counseling). In this note, the plan targets only the acute symptoms and does not demonstrate active management of the chronic conditions beyond listing history/medications. Therefore, the guideline most directly applicable to correct coding of the encounter is codes that describe symptoms and signs.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Progress note states: "Recent EGD identified severe hyperplasia, without obstruction. Follow-up today for Barrett's. Complains of chest pain, difficulty swallowing, 15-pound weight loss in last 12 weeks. Diagnoses-significant weight loss, cachexia, anorexia, Barrett's esophagus, and chest pain. Plan short term tube feeding-consult home health and dietitian for management." Which of the following diagnoses will trigger an HCC assignment?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Within the CMS-HCC model, only certain diagnoses map to HCC categories that contribute to the RAF score. Among the listed options, cachexia is the diagnosis most likely to map to an HCC because it represents a serious systemic wasting condition associated with significant morbidity, higher expected resource use, and frequently coexists with advanced chronic disease. In contrast, Barrett's esophagus generally does not map to an HCC in CMS risk adjustment, and symptom-based diagnoses such as significant weight loss typically do not trigger HCC capture. Anorexia in general clinical usage often represents a symptom (loss of appetite) and, unless it is clearly documented as a qualifying malnutrition-related condition with appropriate specificity, it usually does not map to an HCC. The plan for tube feeding and dietitian involvement strengthens clinical relevance, but for risk adjustment the diagnosis must be one that maps to an HCC category-here, cachexia is the one that meets that criterion and would be the HCC-triggering diagnosis.
NEW QUESTION # 96
A patient presents for a right inguinal herniorrhaphy in ambulatory surgery and is placed in observation status postoperatively. Provider documentation states: "Observation related to the post procedural urinary retention likely related to benign prostatic hyperplasia or adverse reaction to anesthesia." From this documentation, which of the following is the first-listed diagnosis?
Answer: B
Explanation:
For outpatient/observation encounters, the first-listed diagnosis is the condition chiefly responsible for the services provided during that encounter. In this scenario, the patient's ambulatory surgery (herniorrhaphy) has already occurred, and the reason the patient is now in observation is explicitly documented as "post procedural urinary retention." That makes urinary retention the condition driving the extended monitoring, evaluation, and management in observation status. Benign prostatic hyperplasia and an adverse reaction to anesthesia are documented only as possible etiologies ("likely related to...or..."), and outpatient guidelines do not support coding uncertain diagnoses expressed as "likely" or as alternative possibilities without definitive confirmation. Therefore, those potential causes would not replace the confirmed problem that necessitated observation. The hernia was the reason for the procedure, but it is not the reason for the postoperative observation services described. Outpatient CDI practice reinforces documenting the clinical reason for observation and clearly distinguishing confirmed postoperative complications from suspected causes to support correct first-listed selection.
NEW QUESTION # 97
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